|
Year |
2004 |
|---|---|
|
Question Number |
150. |
|
Category |
Orthopaedic Disease |
Question
A 58-year old woman has left thigh pain. History reveals that she was treated for breast cancer 10 years ago. A radiograph, coronal T1- and axial T2- wighted MRI scans, and a bone scan are shown in Figures 45a through 45d. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis are otherwise negative. What is the next step in management?
1- Prophylactic intramedullary stabilization
2- Curettage, cementing, and prophylactic fixation
3- Wide resection and reconstruction
4- Incisional biopsy
5- Radiation therapy and limited weigh bearing
Figures
Answer (click for answer)
4
Reference: